Consider the following set

For all
, we have

That is,

Since
if and only if
(Exercise-1),

From (1-2) and (1-3), we conclude:

i.e.,
defines a function.
Alternatively, (1-1) can be expressed as

It shows that
is the inverse of
. Therefore, we name the function defined by (1-1)
and write it as

Let’s look at another set:

For a pair
, we have

For another pair
,

Since
does not implie
. It means
does not define a function.
However, modification of
gives

It defines a function.
Rewrite (2-3) as
Then
, we have

Notice that by (2-3), 
Cleary, (2-5) is true if and only if
. For if
, by
,
Therefore,

We name the function defined by (2-3)
as (2-4) shows that it is the inverse of 
See “Deriving Two Inverse Functions” for the explicit expressions of
and
.
Prove

Without loss of generality, we assume that
By Lagrange’s mean-value theorem (see “A Sprint to FTC“),

where 
We have

and

Consequently,

i.e.,

Exercise-1 Show that
if and only if
.