From proof to simpler proof

Solve \sin(x)=2x for x.

By mere inspection, we have x=0.

Visually, it appears that 0 is the only solution (see Fig.1 or Fig. 2)

Fig. 1

Fig. 2

To show that 0 is the only solution of \sin(x)=2x analytically, let

f(x) = \sin(x)-2x

0 is a solution of \sin(x)=2x means

f(0) = 0\quad\quad\quad(1)

Suppose there is a solution

x^* \neq 0\quad\quad\quad(2)

then,

f(x^*)=\sin(x^*)-2x^*=0\quad\quad\quad(3)

Since f(x) is an function continuous and differentiable on (-\infty, +\infty),

by Lagrange’s Mean-Value Theorem (see “A Sprint to FTC“), there \exists c \in (0, x^*) such that

f(x^*)-f(0)=f'(c)(x^*-0)

\overset{(1), (3)}{\implies} 0 = f'(c) x^*\quad\quad\quad(4)

\overset{(2)}{\implies} f'(c)=0\quad\quad\quad(5).

We know

f'(x) = \cos(x)-2.

From (5), we have

\cos(c)-2=0.

i.e.,

\cos(c)=2.

This is not possible since \forall x \in R, -1 \le \cos(x) \le 1.

A simpler alternative without direct applying Lagrange’s Mean-Value Theorem is:

f(x) = \sin(x)-2x \implies f'(x) = \cos(x) - 2 \overset{-1 \le \cos(x) \le 1}{\implies} f'(x) < 0\implies

f(x) =\sin(x)-2x is a strictly decreasing function.

Since f(0) = 0, \forall x<0, f(x) > 0 and \forall x>0, f(x) < 0.

Therefore, 0 is the only solution of f(x)=0. i.e.,

0 is the only solution of \sin(x) = 2x.

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